Why was Hijab not mandated before Islam, despite the presence of temptation from men at that time?

The question about the non-imposition of the hijab before Islam, if it refers to the pre-Islamic era (Jahiliyyah), is inappropriate, because rulings are known through the coming of messengers, and Allah is not questioned about what He does, while they will be questioned. However, if the intent is the laws of previous messengers, then the question is also not straightforward; as it has not been proven that those laws sanctioned ostentatious display (tabarruj). Rather, it is evident from the texts of revelation that it (tabarruj) was condemned in all divine laws, such as the attribution of tabarruj to the Jahiliyyah in the Quran, and Allah's saying about one of Shu'aib's two daughters, "walking with shyness." Moreover, the women of the Children of Israel were forbidden from entering the mosque when they committed innovations, which indicates their prohibition from anything that incites fitna (temptation/strife).