Does a vow of obstinacy remain as such, or does it become a vow of obedience that must be fulfilled if the one who made the vow intended for it to be an act of obedience upon committing a sin, with the intention of obligating himself to fulfill it and not expiating it with an oath expiation?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
The vow of righteousness ( al-tabarrur), which is purely an act of obedience, is initially not linked to anything. As for this, it is a vow of contention (nadhr al-lajaj).
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/16661
Where this answer came from
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 16661
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy