Does a vow of obstinacy remain as such, or does it become a vow of obedience that must be fulfilled if the one who made the vow intended for it to be an act of obedience upon committing a sin, with the intention of obligating himself to fulfill it and not expiating it with an oath expiation?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
The vow of righteousness ( al-tabarrur), which is purely an act of obedience, is initially not linked to anything. As for this, it is a vow of contention (nadhr al-lajaj).
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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