Does the husband's statement "I will divorce her or she will be divorced" (meaning he will divorce her if she requests divorce) constitute an immediate divorce of his wife upon her request, or does this phrase correctly indicate a future action, and therefore he is not obligated to divorce her even if she requests divorce?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
It appears that the man intended to promise divorce if his wife requested it. In this case, he is not obligated to carry it out, whether he said "I will divorce" (سوف أطلق) or "I divorce" (أطلق). In both instances, the verb indicates the future, and "سوف" (sawfa) denotes a promise with a sense of deferment. It is important to note that initiating divorce without a legitimate reason is impermissible. Some scholars have deemed it disliked (makrooh), while others have considered it forbidden ().
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 95374
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- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy