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The question

Does divorce occur if the wife angers the husband's mother, based on the husband's oath that she is divorced if she angers her?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

If the wife did not anger her husband's mother, then there is nothing upon the husband. However, if she angered her in the manner intended by the husband, and he had sworn by divorce but did not divorce, then divorce has occurred according to the majority of scholars, and this is the most preponderant opinion. Sheikh Al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah said that he must offer an expiation for an oath (kaffarat yameen) if he did not intend divorce. And if the oath was by one of the names of Allah or one of His attributes, and he did not divorce the wife after she angered his mother, then an expiation for an oath is incumbent upon him. It must be noted that swearing by divorce is not permissible, just as excessive swearing by Allah is disliked.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
110698
Imported
Translation status
Source text, unreviewed
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