Is the questioner considered divorced due to a fictitious divorce document issued by her husband years ago, with his knowledge that he was not spending on her or their daughter and that communication had ceased, or must she file a divorce suit before a judge?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
If the husband did not utter the divorce, or write it with the intention of effecting it, or delegate someone else, then the document is of no use to the wife. The husband's statement, "If she does not love me, then I do not love her," is not an explicit divorce. If the wife wishes to separate from him and he does not divorce her, then she must refer the matter to the court to rule on a divorce or khul'.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/135143
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 135143
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy