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The question

Is the questioner considered divorced due to a fictitious divorce document issued by her husband years ago, with his knowledge that he was not spending on her or their daughter and that communication had ceased, or must she file a divorce suit before a judge?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

If the husband did not utter the divorce, or write it with the intention of effecting it, or delegate someone else, then the document is of no use to the wife. The husband's statement, "If she does not love me, then I do not love her," is not an explicit divorce. If the wife wishes to separate from him and he does not divorce her, then she must refer the matter to the court to rule on a divorce or khul'.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
135143
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy