Why did not our master Abu Bakr, may Allah be pleased with him, give Fatimah, may Allah be pleased with her, a share of the land of Fadak by way of appeasement and to preserve her status, and not by way of inheritance?

Abu Bakr did not give Fadak to Fatimah as a appeasement, because the Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him, had clarified how to dispose of what he left behind. Had he given it to her, the rest of the heirs would have also requested to be given something as appeasement. The consideration is based on facts, not labels; if he had given her Fadak, then she would have inherited it. Furthermore, Abu Bakr did not own Fadak to dispose of it as he wished. He acted concerning it as the Messenger of Allah, peace and blessings be upon him, had intended, saying: "But I will provide for those whom the Messenger of Allah, peace and blessings be upon him, used to provide for, and I will spend on those on whom the Messenger of Allah, peace and blessings be upon him, used to spend." It is also established that Fatimah was pleased with Abu Bakr before her death.