Is it permissible for a woman to have intercourse with her female slave, by analogy with the permissibility of a man having intercourse with his female slave? And what is the reason for the negative view of prostitutes, despite the fact that they are "bought, but for a short time," by analogy with the permissibility of having intercourse with female slaves? And why did Islam not prohibit slavery, despite the deprivation of human will that it entails?

Slavery was legislated in Islam due to disbelief (kufr). If jihad occurs and disbelievers are captured, the ruler (wali al-amr) has the option to distribute them, free them, or ransom them. If the captives are distributed among the ghanimin (those who acquire spoils of war), they become slaves. Islamic law has encouraged emancipation and made it an expiation for many actions, as slavery is not inherently beloved. It is permissible for a master to have intercourse with his female slave, unlike forbidden zina (fornication/adultery), because if the female slave gives birth, the child belongs to the master, and she becomes an umm walad (mother of a child born to her master), who is freed upon his death.