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Do the new details about the girl's conversation, her delayed reply, and her subsequent declaration of refusal to marry him, make his initial vow that she would respond to him a vow of disobedience, and therefore can he consider this vow an act of disobedience?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

Solving problems is not achieved through repeated vows, but by desisting from them. What was narrated from Al-Adhra'i regarding vows is a matter of dispute even among the Shafi'is themselves, as Zakariya Al-Ansari rejected it and considered it an oversight, supporting this with the Maliki madhhab. The Malikis consider it disliked to make a vow conditional on something other than a sin, and forbidden to make a vow conditional on a sin, though what was named (in the vow) remains binding. Al-Zurqani holds that a vow conditional on a sin is binding. For the questioner, it is permissible to consider this as a vow of sin, and thus be released from it by an expiation for an oath (kaffarat yamin), based on the hadith: "There is no vow in disobedience, and its expiation is the expiation of an oath," and the hadith: "Vows are of two types: what is a vow in obedience to Allah, that is for Allah and must be fulfilled. And what is a vow in disobedience to Allah, that is for Satan and has no fulfillment in it, and it is expiated by what expiates an oath." As for Al-Bujairimi, he holds that if the object of the vow (mandhur) was a sin or permissible, the vow is not contracted. However, if the condition on which the vow was based was a sin or permissible, and it involved urging or prohibiting, or confirming a matter, or attributing something to Allah the Almighty, then it was an oath requiring expiation.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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