Back to search
The question

Is there a difference between the doer and the one done to in sodomy in terms of sinfulness and prohibition, and does the prohibition and sin fall only on the one done to?

Share this answer

Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

Both the perpetrator and the victim in this crime and sin are considered sinful, deserving of severe warning, unless the victim was coerced or a minor. In such cases, the victim is not sinful due to the absence of accountability, based on the : "The pen has been lifted from three: from the minor until he reaches puberty, from the madman until he regains his sanity, and from the sleeper until he awakens," and the hadith: "Indeed, Allah has pardoned for my Ummah their mistakes, their forgetfulness, and what they are coerced into."

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

Read the full answer on Ftawy
Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
190160
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full ruling
Read the full answer on Ftawy