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The question

Does a divorce take effect if the husband tells his wife: "Do not touch me, you will be a sinner," with the intention of divorce, using the future tense, or if he says words that hint at divorce with an indirect intention?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

Divorce is of two types: explicit, which occurs by mere utterance and requires no intention, and implicit, which only occurs with intention.

If the husband says to his wife, "Do not touch me, you will be sinful," and he intends divorce if she touches him, then it occurs upon her touching him, because this utterance is an implicit expression of divorce.

However, if he did not intend divorce, or if he intended that he would effect it in the future, then divorce does not occur unless he actually effects it.

As for words that do not imply divorce, such as saying: "Stand up" or "Sit down," divorce does not occur by them, even if he intended it, because the utterance does not support it.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
191000
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy