Does divorce take effect if its صيغة (wording) is in the future tense, and the husband uttered it with the intention of being rid of his wife's insistence on divorce?

The husband's statement, "I will divorce," is a promise of divorce and not an actual divorce, unless the husband executes it. As for ambiguous phrases, such as "we need to separate" or "if you travel, I have no need for you," divorce occurs if the husband intends it, whether it is an immediate or a conditional divorce. If he does not intend divorce, then it does not occur. A clear, unconditional utterance, however, causes divorce to occur immediately, regardless of the husband's intention for it to occur in the future.