Is the husband's saying: "I have divorced myself" or "I divorce myself" considered a divorce?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
Divorce does not occur with the husband's statement, "I have divorced myself" or "I am divorcing myself," because it is neither an explicit nor an allusive expression of divorce, as it attributes the act to an improper subject. Divorce can only be initiated by the husband, and he alone possesses the authority to pronounce it upon his wife. A man's statement, "I am divorced," does not effect a divorce.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/178111
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 178111
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy