Does a divorce, issued twice, take effect after a marriage that took place with "I marry myself to you" and "I accept," where semen was ejaculated onto the body without penetration, and no one witnessed it except Allah? And is there one divorce remaining after a valid marriage, or is this divorce void because it was based on an invalid marriage?

Marriage (Nikah) has pillars without which it is not valid: the woman's guardian (wali) or his representative, along with two just witnesses, and a formula indicating the contract. What you pronounced does not constitute a valid legal contract, and what you did is a sin that requires repentance and for you to stay away from each other until the legal contract is completed. Lenience concerning unlawful seclusion (khalwa) led to this sin, and the two divorces mentioned are not valid because they occurred before the legal contract.