What is the ruling on giving Zakat as provisions and necessities to the poor in past years instead of cash? Is an ignorant person sinful for doing so, and what is required of him? And what is the ruling on purchasing necessities for some poor families with Zakat instead of giving it to them in cash, to ensure the family benefits from it?

The fundamental principle is that zakat (definition) should be paid from the same type of wealth upon which it is due, with the exception of zakat on trade goods, which is paid from their value, although it is permissible to pay it from the trade goods themselves. The preponderant opinion is that it is not permissible to pay zakat as a monetary value, but there is no harm in having paid it as a value in past years. However, it must be paid from the same type of wealth in future years. If the poor person is imprudent and does not manage money well, it is permissible to give them zakat in the form of goods instead of cash, for the benefit of the poor person and to meet their needs.