Is the utterance, "So-and-so is divorced, forbidden to me, and permissible to any man she desires," considered a single repudiation or an irrevocable divorce that does not allow for reconciliation?

Your statement "I divorce so-and-so" counts as one divorce. Your statement "She is forbidden to me": if you intended divorce by it, then it is a divorce; if you intended ẓihār, then it is ẓihār; if you intended an oath, then it is an oath; and if you did not intend anything, then it is an oath. If you intended divorce by the word "forbidden," did you intend to confirm the previous divorce or to initiate another divorce? If the former, it is not another divorce. If the latter, then it is a second divorce. Your statement "and she becomes lawful to any man she wishes": if you intended confirmation by it, it is not a new divorce. If you intended initiation by it, then it is a new divorce. If you intended initiation by it, did you intend one divorce or an irrevocable divorce (battah)? If you intended one divorce, then the matter refers back to what was mentioned previously. If you intended an irrevocable divorce, then your wife has become irrevocably separated from you. Ambiguous expressions indicating separation, like explicit divorce, depend on the intention of the speaker. Whatever was intended as a divorce is according to what was intended. The questioner is advised to consult the Sharia (definition) courts.