What is the ruling regarding a husband's statement to his wife: "If you have done such-and-such, or will do it in the future, then you are divorced," knowing that she had done what he threatened her about previously without his knowledge, and she refuses to do it in the future, but without his knowledge, and does divorce occur if she does it in the future while he is unaware?

The execution of a conditional divorce tied to a past event occurs immediately, and the husband's lack of intent does not negate it. If the husband made the divorce conditional on a future event, and the wife fulfills that condition, the divorce takes place according to the majority of jurists, in contrast to Ibn Taymiyyah. The opinion of the majority is what is acted upon by us. The husband's knowledge of whether the condition was met or not is irrelevant. The husband's statement, "If you have done such-and-such, then I do not want you as a wife," is an explicit declaration of his intention to divorce.