Does a divorce occur if the husband swears an oath of divorce upon his wife that he will not engage in sexual intercourse with her for two weeks, and he then enjoys her without engaging in sexual intercourse during this period?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
If, in your oath of divorce, you intended to abstain from vaginal intercourse, then you do not break your oath by enjoying anything less than that. However, if you had no specific intention, then you break your oath by what you mentioned. The divorce pronounced by an angry person does not take effect if their anger is so severe that they do not comprehend what they are saying, because they are in the same ruling as an insane person. We advise you to avoid swearing by divorce in the future, as it is among the oaths of the dissolute.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/122074
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 122074
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy