Does divorce occur if the wife does not apologize to the husband's mother, given that the conditioning of divorce on this stipulation was a mere thought and not uttered by the husband, and then the husband asked his wife to apologize by saying: "Apologize to my mother, and tell her: 'You have a right over me'"?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
Divorce does not occur because the wife did not apologize to the husband's mother, as divorce does not occur through self-talk or mere intention. If a person suffering from obsessive thoughts utters a divorce without his own volition, his divorce is not effective. It is advised to disregard obsessive thoughts and not dwell on them.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/146226
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 146226
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy