Does a wife become forbidden to her husband if he says to her in anger: "You are forbidden to me from touching you just as my mother is forbidden to me"?

Prohibiting a woman before the marriage contract is not binding if divorce is intended by it, because she is a stranger [to him]. Scholars differed regarding the occurrence of ẓihār from a stranger. As for after the marriage contract, the prohibition is according to the intention. If no intention exists, then the reason for the oath (the context of the oath) is considered. If the prohibition before travel was due to an illicit foreplay or because of her anger, and this reason was removed by marriage or its completion, then there is no breaking of the oath.