Does the husband's saying to his wife "بلاها منك" (literally: there is no more of it from you / enough of it from you) count as one of the phrases of divorce?

Divorce occurs through an explicit utterance or an implicit one (kinayah) combined with the intention to effectuate it. An explicit utterance causes divorce without the need for an intention, whereas an implicit utterance does not cause divorce unless there is an intention. The phrase mentioned is not explicit regarding divorce, and considering it implicit (kinayah) depends on its linguistic indication: if it conveys the meaning of separation and was uttered with the intention of divorce, then divorce occurs; otherwise, it does not.