Is it permissible to claim one's right to the deceased father's house, knowing that the mother and unmarried sister reside in it, and what is the heir's share, and should it be in money or by dividing the house?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
There is no objection to the questioner demanding his share of the house, even if some of the heirs reside in it. To accurately determine his share, the heirs must be fully and clearly identified via the designated link, as the house can be sold and its price divided among the heirs if the property itself cannot be partitioned.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/195815
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 195815
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy