Is a man's marriage to a Muslim woman in Britain valid, given that she did not obtain an explicit divorce from her former husband, but rather she divorced herself from him by agreement to relinquish some of her possessions, and she has correspondence proving that?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
If the husband did not utter the words of khul' or divorce, and no judge ruled it so, then the woman is still under the authority of her husband, and your marriage to her is invalid. It is obligatory to separate from her until the khul' or divorce is finalized and her ' period ends.
However, if the husband uttered the words of khul' or divorce and the 'iddah period ended, or if her first husband was an original disbeliever or an apostate and her 'iddah period from him ended, then your marriage to her is valid.
It is advisable to present these matters to the court or to reliable scholars.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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- 163939
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