What is the ruling on a husband signing a divorce document without the wife's signature in non-Muslim countries? Is it considered a single repudiation or an irrevocable divorce? And is the marriage contract of a Muslim woman who embraced Islam without knowledge of religious laws and does not observe prayer and fasting considered invalid? What is the solution if she has given birth from this marriage?

Allah has placed divorce in the hand of the man. There is no consideration for non-Muslim laws that require the spouses to sign a divorce document; the man’s utterance of the divorce is sufficient. It is permissible to get to know chaste Christian or Jewish women for the purpose of marriage, while adhering to Sharia (definition) regulations, such as the viewing for engagement without seclusion (khalwa (definition)) or touching. Whoever pronounces the two testimonies (Shahadatayn) but does not observe prayer, fasting, and the rest of the Sharia rulings, despite being able to act upon the Islamic laws, is not judged to be a Muslim because he lacks the condition of righteous deeds, nor is he considered an apostate because his Islam was not established in the first place. The marriage of a woman who has pronounced the two testimonies but does not adhere to Sharia rulings, if she is one of the chaste People of the Book, is permissible; otherwise, the contract is void. If the father was ignorant of the prohibition of marrying her, the children are attributed to him. However, if he knew of the prohibition and violated it, the contract is considered adultery, and the children are attributed to their mother.