Is divorce, in a state of extreme anger that causes one to lose their mind, considered void, regardless of whether regret occurs or not? And if a man says to his wife, during her absence, "You are unlawful to me as my mother and sister are unlawful," is this considered ẓihār or divorce, knowing that he believed this phrase only meant not touching the woman?

"Anger that does not remove one's intellect does not prevent the occurrence of divorce or ẓihār (a pronouncement by which a husband likens his wife to an unmarriageable female relative, making her unlawful to him) according to most scholars, and this is the prevalent juristic opinion. Disagreement in jurisprudential matters allows for following any opinion as long as it is based on conviction, not caprice. A man's statement to his wife: 'You are unlawful to me like my mother and my sister' is considered ẓihār. Intercourse with her becomes forbidden until he performs the expiation for ẓihār, which is: freeing a slave; if he cannot find one, then fasting for two consecutive months; if he cannot do that, then feeding sixty poor persons, and this must be done before he touches her. Regret does not affect the occurrence of divorce. It is advisable to warn against anger because it is the key to evil."