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The question

What is the ruling on a husband telling his wife: "If she greets you, do not return the greeting, and if you do return it, do not enter your house," and what is the ruling on his saying thereafter: "Did I really swear an oath of divorce upon her?"?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

The words spoken by the man to his wife are not an explicit divorce. His statement that he did not intend divorce is what counts, because he knows best his own intention. Therefore, these words do not constitute a divorce, even if the wife did what her husband had forbidden her from doing.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
153937
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy