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The question

What is the ruling on one who swore by divorce not to do something, and then did it?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

If the husband swears by divorce that you will not speak to a specific person, and you do speak to them: if you have fulfilled his oath, then the divorce does not occur and the oath is dissolved. However, if you have spoken to the aforementioned person in the manner your husband intended, then divorce has occurred according to the majority of scholars. He may take you back before the ' (waiting period) is complete, provided this divorce does not complete the three divorces. The view of Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah is that your husband may suffice with an expiation for an oath (kaffarat ) if he did not intend divorce, but the preponderant view is that of the majority. It must be noted that swearing by divorce is not permissible; it is among the oaths of the dissolute.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
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Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
121982
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy