If the wife stipulated before the marriage contract that her husband should not prevent her from using the internet and social media, and the husband agreed, is it permissible for him to prevent her from doing so after the marriage on the pretext of averting temptation, given that there is no evidence of her committing prohibitions?
If a woman stipulates to her husband at the time of the marriage contract that she be allowed to use the internet and social media, and there is nothing to arouse suspicion, then it appears that the husband must fulfill this condition.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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