If the wife stipulated before the marriage contract that her husband should not prevent her from using the internet and social media, and the husband agreed, is it permissible for him to prevent her from doing so after the marriage on the pretext of averting temptation, given that there is no evidence of her committing prohibitions?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
If a woman stipulates to her husband at the time of the marriage contract that she be allowed to use the internet and social media, and there is nothing to arouse suspicion, then it appears that the husband must fulfill this condition.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/173893
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 173893
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy