Is it Islamically permissible for a marriage to continue nominally, with the spouses living in the same house but without a marital relationship (intercourse) between them, while both spouses agree to this, out of fear of the children's dispersion?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
Marital intimacy is a right for both spouses, and if they forgo it, there is no sin upon them. However, each of them has the right to retract their waiver and demand their right. So, if the wife requests her right to spend the night, the husband must fulfill it. Likewise, if the husband calls his wife to bed, she must obey him. We advise seeking refuge with Allah from Satan and not giving him an opportunity to cause mischief, and understanding is only achieved by overlooking mistakes.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/70053
Where this answer came from
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 70053
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy