What is the ruling on a fiancée's insistence on working after marriage, citing the reason of helping her family and facing circumstances, while the fiancé believes that the priority is her home and raising their children? Should he agree to her work under his conditions, or should he leave her?
The questioner has the right to stipulate that his fiancée should not work after marriage. Even if he does not stipulate this, she is not permitted to work without his permission. Neither she nor her guardian has the right to lease her services without his permission. The husband has the right to annul the lease contract if it occurred after the marriage or before it, and he was unaware of it. If the husband permits his wife to work, her work must be permissible and must not involve seclusion (), mixing (ikhtilat), or immodest display (tabarruj). If any of these are present, then her work becomes forbidden to her. Thus, the questioner's request is legitimate and should be accommodated.
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