Did the divorce occur due to the intention and wording that transpired between the couple, given that the husband initially refused procreation through IVF procedures, which led to their agreement to separate and the wife's departure from the home, while discussions continued regarding her return before his future consent to the procedure?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
Divorce does not occur by mere intention without uttering it, nor by promising it. So, if what was issued was merely a promise of divorce, then divorce does not occur upon the wife by that.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/126715
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- 126715
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