Does a divorce take place if a mediator informs the husband that his wife wants a divorce, based on the husband's prior statement to the mediator: "I don't know if she wants to return to her home or not? So that she gets divorced, or I divorce her, or she becomes divorced, or... I fear that if I divorce her, she will blame me afterwards, and if I knew, then the matter would be resolved (or he said 'I divorce her' or 'she gets divorced' or he doesn't remember exactly)," knowing that the husband intended to explain and delay making a decision, and did not intend divorce?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
A wife's departure from her husband's home without his permission is impermissible. Divorce occurs through explicit pronouncements or through allusive statements accompanied by intention. A mere promise of divorce does not enact it. What was mentioned is neither an explicit pronouncement nor an allusion to divorce; rather, it is merely a promise of divorce should the wife desire it. Consequently, divorce does not take effect merely by the intermediary informing of the wife's desire.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/95460
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 95460
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy