Does a divorce occur by the husband's statement: "I had divorced you" if the matter in question had happened in the past without the husband's knowledge that it was the same matter?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
What your husband uttered is a promise to divorce you if a certain matter occurs. A promise of divorce does not constitute a divorce, nor is it recommended to fulfill it, as clarified by Sheikh Al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah. Therefore, the divorce has not occurred, and you remain under his marital bond.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/118690
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 118690
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy