Does divorce occur in any of the three aforementioned cases: the husband's saying "I divorce her" or "I'll end the matter" with the intention of explaining, or his uttering the words "you are divorced" during practice, or his saying "divorce has occurred" unintentionally after speaking with the Sheikh?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
Divorce does not take place in the first two cases. The first is merely a promise of divorce, and the second is a narration of divorce, not an actual divorce. As for the third case, if the husband intended to effect a divorce by saying "the husband uttered without intention," then it takes place. However, if he meant that the divorce had already occurred based on the 's , then it does not take place.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 95706
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy