Is a wife considered forbidden to her husband if he said to her in a message: "You are forbidden to me just as my sister became forbidden"?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
The more likely view is that the matter depends on the person's intention, and whether by the utterance he intended ẓihār, or ṭalāq, or an oath. An angry person is accountable as long as he comprehends what he is saying. Writing does not entail its content, whether ṭalāq, ẓihār, or an oath, except with intention. One must be wary of anger, acting upon the Prophet's (peace be upon him) وصية (counsel), as it is from Satan and leads to many corruptions and evils.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/138230
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 138230
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy