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The question

What should a wife do if her husband has explicitly sworn to divorce her more than twenty times, while her family justifies that divorce does not occur until the third pronouncement, and should she remain with him to raise her daughters or leave him?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

If the husband has issued three explicit divorces, then the wife is forbidden to him, and a major, irrevocable divorce has occurred between them. Similarly, divorce takes place according to the majority of scholars if he swears an oath of divorce and then breaks his oath, in contrast to Ibn Taymiyyah, who holds that it is an expiation for an oath. What the husband has issued in terms of divorce must be determined to clarify the wife's status. If an irrevocable divorce has occurred, it is forbidden to cohabit with him, but it is permissible to live with him in a spacious dwelling if there is independence and his consent. The matter must be referred to the judiciary to ascertain what is obligatory, and the wife must refrain from the husband.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
96230
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy