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The question

Is a man's oath not to have sexual relations with his wife—and the words he used to her were, "I swear by Allah Almighty that I will not touch you after today"—considered Dhihar? Does it require expiation, and must the expiation for Dhihar be performed in the order mentioned in the Holy Quran, or is feeding sixty poor people sufficient?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

A husband's oath never to have sexual intercourse with his wife is considered ila' (vow of abstinence), not zhihar (injurious assimilation). Ila' is when a man swears to abstain from sexual intercourse with his wife for more than four months. If he resumes sexual intercourse with her, there is no consequence for him. But if he does not do so and does not have sexual intercourse with his wife, he is ordered to divorce her after four months have passed.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
46731
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy