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The question

Is contributing to the purchase of real estate solely in the husband's name, without registering a portion in the wife's name, considered an injustice to the children and her parents as heirs? And is the husband's will sufficient to guarantee their rights, or must a portion of the real estate be registered in the wife's name?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

If the wife gifts money to her husband willingly, the money becomes his property, and she is not allowed to retract it. This is not considered an injustice to the children and parents unless her intention was to disinherit them. However, if she spent the money with the intention of retrieval or participation in real estate, she has the right to claim her share and register it in her name. In this case, she is permitted to gift her money to her children and parents, provided that the gift is made while she is in good health and sound mind, and that she relinquishes possession of the gifted item for them to take possession.

As for the husband's bequest to his wife's parents, it is permissible as long as it does not exceed one-third, because they are not his heirs. However, his bequest to his children is not permissible unless the rest of the heirs agree, based on the Prophet (peace be upon him) saying: "There is no bequest for an heir."

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
134571
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy