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The question

Is it permissible for a man who has no desire for his wife and does not have intercourse with her, but desires another woman whom he previously loved, to divorce his wife in order to marry the one he loves?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

Establishing a love relationship between a man and a woman who are not married to each other is a sin, and repentance for it is obligatory. If the suitor is a man of religion and good character, there is no harm in marrying him, provided that the woman does not ask him to divorce his first wife; because the Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him, forbade that, and because divorce without a valid reason is disliked, and it may be forbidden due to the harm it causes. The ideal solution is for the man to be fair between the two wives if possible, otherwise, the girl must refrain from the causes that might rekindle the old relationship, such as mixing and looking.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
59090
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy