Is the French civil court's ruling of divorce considered enforceable, given that the husband did not divorce his wife Islamically, and that divorce in Islamic Sharia is the right of the man except in specific cases?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
As long as the husband has not divorced his wife, she remains under his marital authority. A divorce issued by a non-Muslim judge is not Islamically valid. If a man divorces his wife Islamically, it is permissible to document the divorce before civil courts. However, in cases of dispute regarding divorce, Islamic centers act in place of the Shar'i judiciary. Resorting to civil courts to terminate a marriage does not result in the termination of the marriage according to Sharia. If a woman obtains a civil divorce, she should approach Islamic centers to complete the matter Islamically.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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- 154552
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