Is a civil divorce that took place in a foreign court considered legitimate and sufficient, and does it absolve the wife before God, especially since the husband insists on the continuation of the marital relationship despite his declaration of his homosexuality?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
If the husband is a homosexual, this is a serious matter because it is the act of the people of Lot, and it has been established in the Sunnah that openly committing this sin is even more dangerous. There is no good for a woman in remaining with a husband in such a state unless he repents sincerely. If a civil divorce is issued, it must be referred to Islamic centers to complete the matter according to Sharia; because resorting to secular courts alone does not terminate the marriage Islamically.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/188364
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- 188364
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