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The question

Is a house that the grandfather did not own with a title deed, and which was transferred to his wife after his death, considered an inheritance that must be divided among all heirs?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

If the state gave the house to your grandfather's wife, whether for a fee or for free, then it belongs to her, and it does not become an inheritance for your grandfather. This is because inheritance is a branch of ownership during life, and your grandfather was not the owner of the house, but rather had the right of usufruct.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
18677
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy