Is my saying to someone, "By divorce, I will not do such and such until they do such and such"—even though I did not originally swear by divorce—considered the creation of an oath or merely a false statement?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
This is a false statement that does not result in divorce. The preponderant opinion is that whoever falsely claims to have sworn by divorce does not become one who has sworn, and divorce does not occur due to his action regarding what he claimed he swore upon. It is stated in Al-Mughni by Ibn Qudamah: "If he said: 'I swore by divorce,' or 'I am bound by an oath of divorce,' and he had not sworn, nothing is incumbent upon him between him and Allah the Almighty."
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Where this answer came from
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 185338
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy