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The question

Is the statement that says if a ritually impure garment is squeezed and no drops fall from it, and then it is wrapped in a dry, pure garment, its moisture does not contaminate the pure garment, correct? And does this ruling apply to pre-seminal fluid (madhy) on clothes?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

What you have read from the Hanafi school of thought is correct: a pure garment does not become impure if it is touched by dampness due to being wrapped in a wet, impure garment that cannot be wrung out, because no part of the substance of the impurity separates from it. This is in contrast to a garment wet with impurity, such as urine; if it touches a garment or body and dampness separates from it, then it must be washed, because that dampness is the impurity itself. It is advised to turn away from obsessive doubts and not pay attention to them.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
138967
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy