Is a man's saying to his wife: "You are unlawful to me if you travel," for the third time after two previous divorces, and her subsequent travel, considered an irrevocable divorce, or an oath requiring expiation?

The preponderant opinion regarding the prohibition of one's wife is to refer to the husband's intention. If he intended divorce, it is a divorce. If he intended ẓihār, it is ẓihār. If he intended an oath, or did not intend anything specific, then it is an oath.

If he intended divorce by the prohibition, a major irrevocable divorce has occurred. If he intended ẓihār, it has occurred, and it is not permissible for him to have intercourse with her before the expiation mentioned in Surat Al-Mujadilah. If he did not intend ẓihār or divorce, then he must offer the expiation for an oath.