Is a man's saying to his wife: "You are unlawful to me if you travel," for the third time after two previous divorces, and her subsequent travel, considered an irrevocable divorce, or an oath requiring expiation?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
The preponderant opinion regarding the prohibition of one's wife is to refer to the husband's intention. If he intended divorce, it is a divorce. If he intended ẓihār, it is ẓihār. If he intended an oath, or did not intend anything specific, then it is an oath.
If he intended divorce by the prohibition, a major irrevocable divorce has occurred. If he intended ẓihār, it has occurred, and it is not permissible for him to have intercourse with her before the expiation mentioned in Surat Al-Mujadilah. If he did not intend ẓihār or divorce, then he must offer the expiation for an oath.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/158955
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 158955
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy