Back to search
The question

Is zakat obligatory on unsaleable goods and overdue debts? And what is the ruling concerning the zakat on these monies if their zakat was paid for previous years, then they were sold or collected?

Share this answer

Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

There is no zakat due on inherited trade goods for the heirs, because zakat on such goods requires their ownership with the intention of trade. So, if one acquires them through inheritance or without a prior intention, and then intends to trade with them, they do not become trade goods (for zakat purposes from the time of inheritance). If, hypothetically, zakat were to be due on them, then for partners, zakat becomes obligatory on each individual's share separately, if their share reaches the nisab (minimum threshold) or if a hawl (full lunar year) passes over it. The depreciation of trade goods does not waive the zakat due on them.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported

Read the full answer on Ftawy
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
183552
Imported
Translation status
Source text, unreviewed
Read the full ruling
Read the full answer on Ftawy