Is a Khulʿ, which was initiated without the husband's knowledge or presence, and without him receiving his full rights, considered void, and what is incumbent upon the husband to do regarding his wife who remarried three years after this Khulʿ?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
The prior agreement for khul' is not considered; rather, what is considered is what was mutually agreed upon at the time the khul' was effected. If the husband accepts the gold left by the wife and issues the divorce in return, then the khul' is valid. However, if the husband does not accept the compensation and does not issue the divorce, then the khul' has not occurred. If the husband takes the compensation and intends to demand the rest from the wife, then he is only entitled to what he has taken. This issue involves various ramifications and requires presentation to the Shar'i courts for adjudication.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/89079
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 89079
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy