Is a person considered to be an agent of corruption if he performs a permissible act, knowing that it will lead to significant corruption, even though he does not intend for the corruption to occur or to assist in it?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
A permissible act may become forbidden if it is known to contain a preponderant harm, which is known by the rule of "blocking the means" (Sadd al-Dhara'i'). An example of this is selling grapes to someone the seller knows will turn them into wine. In such a case, selling them is forbidden to block the means to this harm; otherwise, the seller would be a partner in sin. The ruling on the aforementioned permissible act cannot be definitively determined except by knowing the feared harm associated with it.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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- 164458
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