Does "I swear by all that is unlawful that you did not invite me," or "It is unlawful that you did not invite me" constitute ẓihār or divorce if one intends to declare their family unlawful, and does it take effect merely by uttering it?

If a husband swears by saying, "It is forbidden for me," or "Forbidden upon me," it is considered a divorce if he intended divorce, a ẓihār if he intended ẓihār, and an oath if he intended an oath. Nothing is incumbent upon him if he was truthful or believed himself to be truthful. However, if he was lying, then what he intended becomes binding upon him, whether it be divorce, or ẓihār expiation, or oath expiation. The word "forbidden" is not an explicit term like divorce; rather, it is a euphemism that requires an intention to specify its meaning (divorce, ẓihār, oath).