What is the relationship between the noble verse, "The fornicator does not marry except a [female] fornicator or polytheist, and none marries her except a [male] fornicator or polytheist," and the situation of a man who discovers that his wife has committed adultery and then repented? And is this man considered a fornicator according to the verse?

We have previously explained the sayings of the scholars regarding the interpretation of the verse from Surat An-Nur: "The fornicator does not marry except a [female] fornicator or polytheist, and none marries the fornicator except a [male] fornicator or polytheist." The scholars have differed on the ruling concerning marriage to a fornicating woman. The majority of scholars permit it, though with dislike, while some have stated its impermissibility. This applies to marrying her initially without her repentance. However, for a woman who has repented, she is not included in this difference of opinion. And a married woman's fornication does not prevent the continuation of her marriage, nor is her husband's intimacy with her considered fornication.