Is reading "الربانيون والأحبار" and "الإثم" and "لبئس" without a hamza in Surat Al-Ma'idah considered a correct or incorrect reading?

The reciter who transfers the hamza's vowel to the quiescent letter preceding it and substitutes the hamza in "bi'sa" with a long vowel (madd letter) is one who recites according to the narration of Warsh from Nafi'. For Warsh facilitates the hamza in words like "bi'sa," "bi'sama," "al-bi'r," "al-dhi'b," and "li'alla." Furthermore, Warsh drops the hamza from pronunciation after transferring its vowel to the quiescent letter preceding it, whether that quiescent letter is a tanween or the definite article "al-."